PK's comment in another thread reminded me I REALLY want an answer to the following question:
If Obamacare mandates that womens care (including a host of screenings, birth control, and more) is covered by all healthcare insurance, what purpose does Govt. funding of Planned Parenthood then serve?
If everything they do, other than abortion, is now mandated covered and everyone is mandatesd to HAVE coverage, why would we continue to fund (with tax money) Planned Parenthood at that point?
I'm honestly confused on this. If at that stage it's just for abortion, fine, it's a debate to have of course. But what ELSE would they be offering that would not be covered under the mandate/expansion of Obamacare?
I'm confused to how is abortion not murder?
Is there seriously not a single serious, content-posessing answer?
To attempt to anser WF's question.
Based on MY understanding of PP, the only thing they would cover not covered by Obamacare is abortion. Hence, it should be UNFUNDED since abortion is NOT covered by Obamacare (according to them).
From what I can tell, Planned Parenthood would still serve a purpose for women who choose to not purchase private health insurance and are paying the no health insurance fee. This also applies to children under the age of 18 whose guardians are not actively participating in a health care plan.
If they're paying the fee rather than buy due to fiscal constraints, they would qualify for the various low-cost options that will exist undr the State.
If they're paying the fee for other reasons, why should taxpayer money go to support that choice?
The mandate exists for a reason, to make everyone have insurance. Why then offer a direct duplicative contradiction, and provide additional taxpayer funding to a different service that specificly exists, then, to serve those who choose to suffer penalty of law rather than buy the insurance the law was designed to make everyone have?
I'm not questioning why PP should exist. I'm more questioning why a dollar of taxpayer money would go to a service that should, by law, be being performed as part of insurance under the mandate and it's various assistence programs?
In a world where the individual mandate faultlessly realizes health insurance for all citizens, your question and point are logical. The reality of the situation dictates that not all people will have health insurance and a market place for Planned Parenthood remains.
"Reproductive Services" sounds like, wow, a whole lot of important, easy-to-define stuff.
So what is it, specificly?
Whoa, I though the core of the Obamcare argument was that it would provide affordable insurance to those in need, and widen the poor by making (the mandate) everyone be IN the poor.In a world where the individual mandate faultlessly realizes health insurance for all citizens, your question and point are logical. The reality of the situation dictates that not all people will have health insurance and a market place for Planned Parenthood remains.
Why would we then use taxpayer funding to support people who not only refuse to follow the law and be in the poor, but still seem to think we (taxpayers) owe it to them anyway, despite a State Option existing they could use?